Not surprisingly, free agent running back Le’Veon Bell is unlikely to land back with the team that originally drafted him, the Pittsburgh Steelers.
According to Jeremy Fowler of espn.com Thursday morning, Bell, who was released by the New York Jets on Wednesday, is likely to sign soon with one of three teams, the Miami Dolphins, Buffalo Bills or Kansas City Chiefs.
The Steelers being considered by many as a possible landing spot for Bell was absurd due to not only the team’s current salary cap situation for 2020, but his history with the organization and the current state of the team’s depth chart at the running back position as well.
Bell landing with either the Chiefs or Bills would obviously result in him being part of a playoff caliber team both have identical 4-1 records entering Week 6 of the regular season.
Bell ultimately landing with the Bills would be interesting because they are scheduled to play the Steelers at home in Week 14 and on a Sunday night. The Steelers faced Bell in Week 16 of the 2020 season when he was with the Jets. The former second-round draft pick out of Michigan State rushed for 72 yards on 25 carries in that Jets win. He also caught 4 passes for another 21 yards in that game at MetLife Stadium.
It’s unknown as to what kind of contract Bell will sign but it will likely be a one-year deal so that he can test free agent again in 2021. Bell’s recently terminated contract with the Jets included offset language as well.
We’ll now sit and wait to see if Bell has a new home by the time Sunday rolls around. Curiously enough, the Chiefs are scheduled to play the Bills Monday night in Buffalo.
